Exam Guide By: Linda Howard TO ACCOMPANY: DESSLER, HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT 11/E MONDY AND NOE, HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT 10/E AND DESSLER, FUNDAMENTALS OF HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT 1/E AH PRACTICE TEST (200 QUESTIONS) 1. Human Resource departments serve a strategic role in most organizations because: a. today’s organizations are instituting HR practices aimed at gaining competitive advantage through their employees. b. Human Resource departments handle downsizing and layoff processes. c. globalization has reduced competition. d. the workforce is becoming less diverse. . Human Resources departments support organizational strategy implementation in all of the following ways EXCEPT: a. restructuring efforts. b. instituting incentive plans, such as pay-for-performance plans. c. developing and marketing the organization’ s products and services. d. retraining employees for redesigned work. 3. Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act prohibits employment discrimination based on: a. race, color, or ethnic background. b. race, religion, or sexual orientation. c. race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. d. race, gender, or religion. 4.
Strategic organizational issues related to employee compensation include all of the following EXCEPT: a. whether to emphasize seniority or performance. b. how to handle salary compression. c. whether employees should be paid weekly, biweekly, or monthly. d. who should distribute pay checks to employees. 5. A specialized approach to organizational change in which the employees themselves formulate the change that is required and implement it, often with the assistance of a trained consultant, is: a. organizational development. b. skills training. c. employee orientation. d. sensitivity training. 6.
Human Resource professionals need to understand the relationship between employee training and organizational strategy because: a. training always results in improved performance. b. HR departments are responsible for delivering employee training. c. training is often part of managerial efforts to renew or reinvent the organization so that it can meet a strategic challenge. d. employees generally enjoy training programs. 7. A process that aims to improve the performance and interaction within a specific group of employees is: a. teambuilding. b. a Scanlon plan. c. human factors engineering. d. survey research. . With regard to technology: a. expansion of employee Internet use has had little effect on HR policies and practices. b. most employees need little training in technology as computer usage is widespread. c. technology and the Internet have enhanced HR’s ability to deliver services to employees. d. most organizations are decreasing, rather than increasing, technology usage. 9. Distinguishing characteristics of self-directed (self-managed) teams include all of the following EXCEPT: a. strong managerial leadership. b. naturally interdependent tasks. c. enriched jobs. d. employee empowerment. 10.
Total Quality Management (TQM) programs typically include all of the following EXCEPT: a. a focus on customer satisfaction through continuous improvement. b. employee training designed to insure quality. c. involvement of all members of the organization. d. specific penalties for employees who fail to meet TQM standards. 11. HR-related guidelines for building effective self-directed teams include: a. designating a strong leader as manager of the team. b. eliminating cross training so that workers can concentrate on their jobs. c. providing extensive training so that team members have the skills needed to do their jobs. . assigning employees who dislike teams to work together as a team to overcome their resistance. 12. Human Resources departments can make a significant contribution to business process re-engineering by: a. strengthening the top-down communication process. b. moving from teams to functional departments. c. eliminating the distractions of cross-training. d. redesigning work with a focus on multitasked, enriched, generalist work. 13. A work redesign plan whereby employees build their workday around a core of midday hours is: a. a compressed work week. b. job sharing. c. a flexible work schedule. . telecommuting. 14. Which of the following is true with regard to flexible work arrangements? a. Job sharing and work sharing are different terms for the same process. b. Compressed workweeks are particularly suitable for organizations that offer services continuously, 24 hours a day. c. Most firms using flexible work arrangements give employees broad freedom regarding the hours they work. d. Flextime arrangements have been most successful in factory jobs. 15. A comprehensive process to determine the effectiveness of a firm’s HR policies and procedures would most likely include: a. n HR audit. b. comparison of the firm’s compensation practices with peer firms. c. an analysis of turnover and absenteeism in the HR department. d. a re-design of the performance appraisal process. 16. With regard to global HR management, HR practitioners should note that: a. research indicates that a significant number of employees will leave the firm within a year or two of returning home after an international assignment. b. repatriation agreements are considered ineffective processes in today’s international organizations. c. labor strikes occur very frequently in European countries. . the adjustment of the employee’s spouse and family to the new country is rarely a significant factor in employee performance. 17. Current global pressures that affect HR strategic management include all of the following EXCEPT: a. employee skills deployment to the appropriate location. b. knowledge dissemination throughout the organization. c. identifying and developing employee talent on a global basis. d. stressing to employees that cultures are the same around the world. 18. The management functions of most HR departments include: a. both line and staff responsibilities. b. taff responsibilities but not line responsibilities. c. line responsibilities but not staff responsibilities. d. neither line nor staff responsibilities. 19. Technological changes in the workplace have influenced the practice of HR management because: a. employees need less training when organizations use technology. b. technological changes have changed the nature of work. c. organizational spending on technology has reduced the funds available for HR functions. d. as technology advances, firms become less competitive. 20. An important workforce demographic consideration for HR professionals is that: . the workforce has become less diverse in recent years. b. the average age of the labor force is declining. c. older workers are more likely to remain in the workforce past the age of 65. d. diversity initiatives are no longer needed in most organizations. 21. HR departments contribute a unique perspective to the organizational strategic planning process because: a. HR offers training programs in the strategic planning process. b. HR handles strategy implementation in regard to restructuring and organizational development. c. HR maintains records of employee performance. d.
HR is responsible for compensation surveys. 22. Outsourcing of HR functions is a valuable organizational strategy because this strategy: a. reduces costs. b. increases employee commitment to the organization. c. decreases turnover and absenteeism. d. offers employees improved benefits packages. 23. As an organizational technology tool, HR Websites are used to: a. provide employees with a single access point or gateway to organizational HR information. b. allow employees to communicate with each other via electronic mail. c. streamline the performance appraisal process. d. minimize union organizing activity. 4. A key determinant of success in business-government employment initiatives such as a welfare-to-work program is: a. offering salaries that are significantly higher than industry standards. b. pre- and post-employment training initiatives, including new employee counseling and basic skills training. c. hiring only those who speak English as their native language. d. hiring only relatives of current employees. 25. Organizational efforts to eliminate the present effects of past discriminatory practices are collectively known as: a. affirmative action. b. equal employment opportunity. c. everse discrimination. d. compliance strategies. 26. Which of the following actions would likely be deemed discriminatory? a. pay differences between men and women based on seniority b. replacing a worker aged 45 with a worker aged 39 c. refusing to hire women in a private for-profit business with seven employees, all male d. requiring disabled workers to perform the essential functions of the job for which they were hired 27. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits employment discrimination based on: a. race, color, religion, sex, or national origin b. race, religion, or gender c. ppearance, race, color, or sex d. race, religion, color, sexual orientation, or gender 28. A major provision of the Civil Rights Act of 1991 is that: a. it limits compensatory and punitive damages for employers found liable for discriminatory practices. b. it placed the burden of proof back on employers and permits the awarding of compensatory and punitive damages. c. it permits the awarding of compensatory damages but not punitive damages. d. it permits the awarding of punitive damages but not compensatory damages. 29. A basic provision of the Americans with Disabilities Act is that employers must: . hire disabled individuals and then lower performance standards so that the disabled will not be adversely affected by their disability. b. make reasonable accommodation for disabled workers, even if doing so results in undue hardship to the company. c. provide increased benefits to disabled workers, based on the extent of their disability. d. not discriminate against individuals who can perform the essential functions of a job, with or without reasonable accommodation. 30. The first step in the job analysis process entails: a. deciding how the organization will use the information collected. b. riting new job descriptions for all current employees. c. comparing old job descriptions with new job specifications. d. replacing job descriptions with job specifications. 31. A written statement that describes the activities and responsibilities of a job, as well as important features such as working conditions and safety hazards, is a: a. job analysis. b. job specification. c. job description. d. workforce warning and retraining notification statement. 32. The final step in a job analysis process is: a. verify the analysis data with the worker performing the job and his or her immediate supervisor. b. evelop a job description and job specification. c. decide how the analysis information will be used. d. collect the job analysis data. 33. Designing job specifications based on statistical analysis: a. is a quick, low-cost approach to the process. b. is more defensible than a managerial judgment approach. c. is helpful in recruitment, but not a good predictor of employee performance. d. is illegal under Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. 34. Which of the following is true with regard to predicting organizational employment needs? a. The most effective analysis processes examine future practices to predict present needs. . Computerized methods of employment forecasting are useful in small organizations but ineffective in large organizations. c. Mathematical models such as ratio analysis examine the relationship between a causal factor (e. g. , sales volume) and the number of employees needed. d. Very few organizations engage in any kind of employment prediction process. 35. Employee requirement and availability forecasts would be most helpful in: a. the recruiting process. b. the performance appraisal process. c. the employee discipline process. d. the interviewing process. 36.
Which of the following would likely be the least effective method of recruiting internal job candidates? a. posting information on organizational bulletin boards b. examining HR records of current employees c. advertising in national newspapers and journals d. consulting organizational skills banks 37. The contemporary contingent work force: a. is generally limited to clerical or maintenance staff. b. is declining as firms continue to outsource. c. is made up of workers who do not have permanent jobs. d. is considered a staffing alternative of last resort. 38. In the selection process, test validity refers to: a. he accuracy with which the test measures what it purports to measure nor fulfills the function it was designed to fill. b. the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with the same or equivalent tests. c. the number of criteria included on the test. d. the range of scores possible on the test. 39. With regard to Equal Employment Opportunity aspects of testing in the selection process: a. if tests are valid, the tests need not show a relationship to job performance. b. employers should avoid testing, as testing has been shown to violate the rights of protected classes. c. testing always results in adverse impact. . employers must be able to prove the relationship between performance on the test and performance on the job. 40. An employer who wants to measure job performance directly rather than indirectly would likely use which of the following testing processes? a. an intelligence test b. a test of manual dexterity c. a work sample test d. a personality test 41. An employer who wishes to hire a recent immigrant should note the following related to U. S. immigration law: a. a person must be a U. S. citizen, or have started the naturalization process, to be lawfully employed in the U. S. b. employers must verify ligibility for employment prior to hiring foreign-born applicants. c. EEOC regulations do not apply to foreign-born workers. d. to be eligible for employment, immigrants must sign an oath of allegiance to the U. S. 42. A primary advantage of unstructured versus structured interviewing techniques is that: a. unstructured interviews take less time. b. in an unstructured interview, the interviewer can ask follow-up questions and pursue points of interest as they develop. c. unstructured interviews are in compliance with EEOC regulations, whereas structured interviews are not. d. unstructured interviews are more cost effective. 3. Which of the following types of interviews tend to be the most reliable and valid? a. unstructured interviews b. structured interviews c. stress interviews d. panel interviews 44. Factors that can undermine the usefulness of an interview include all of the following except: a. not knowing the requirements of the job. b. not knowing the job candidate. c. being under pressure to hire. d. the effect of the order in which candidates were interviewed. 45. Organizations wishing to ensure a suitable supply of employees for current and future senior or key jobs should consider implementing: a. succession planning. . work-life initiatives. c. higher compensation rates. d. a stress interviewing process. 46. HR professionals should know the following about unemployment insurance benefits: a. benefits are not paid unless the employee submits to an exit interview. b. firms are required to pay benefits only for employees dismissed through no fault of their own. c. unemployment insurance benefits are not available to exempt employees. d. in most cases, unemployment insurance benefits expire in eight weeks. 47. The primary purpose of new employee orientation is to: a. help the new employee feel comfortable in the organization. . reduce employee lawsuits. c. provide new employees with basic information so that they can perform their jobs satisfactorily. d. reduce turnover and absenteeism. 48. The best medium for recruiting blue-collar and entry-level workers is generally: a. the local newspaper. b. nationally distributed newspapers. c. trade journals. d. the Internet. 49. Employers may wish to utilize employment agencies in the recruiting process because: a. it is generally less expensive to outsource recruiting than to do it in-house. b. agencies can generally fill a particular opening more quickly than in-house HR departments. c. gencies almost always provide higher quality candidates that those recruited by HR departments. d. candidates, not the prospective employer, are responsible for paying the agency’s fees. 50. With regard to flexible work arrangements such as compressed work week programs and flextime, HR professionals should note that: a. flexible work schedules generally have a positive effect on employee productivity, but may increase worker fatigue. b. in shift work, a change to 12-hour shifts from 8-hour shifts creates more confusion, since there are fewer shift changes. c. flexible schedules are likely to increase absenteeism. . as programs become more flexible, they are easier to administer. 51. Which of the following job analysis methods offers the most quantifiable measures of job duties? a. observation b. the Position Analysis Questionnaire c. a participant diary d. an interview 52. Which of the following job analysis methods quantifies job duties in the three specific areas of data, people, and things? a. the Department of Labor job analysis procedure b. the Position Analysis Questionnaire c. an unstructured interview d. a participant diary 53. An advantage of job analysis methods that use quantitative measures is that: a.
HR professionals can group together, and assign similar pay to, all jobs with similar scores, even if the jobs are very different. b. methods that use quantitative measures are much less expensive than non-quantitative methods. c. quantitative measures never change, unlike non-quantitative measures. d. it is much easier to plan employee training programs if quantitative measures are used. 54. HR professionals should use multiple sources of information when conducting job analysis because: a. using only one source of information may lead to inaccurate conclusions. b. it is less expensive to use multiple sources. c. uantifiable information is frequently erroneous. d. it is less time-consuming to use multiple sources. 55. With regard to writing job specifications, HR professionals should know that: a. identifying the specifications for trained workers is much more complex than for untrained workers. b. identifying the specifications for untrained workers is much more complex than for trained workers. c. job specifications are not needed for trained workers. d. job specifications are not needed for untrained workers. 56. HR professional who based job specifications on statistical analysis rather than judgment should note that: a. asing job specifications on statistical analysis is a more defensible approach. b. basing job specifications on judgment is a more defensible approach. c. neither approach is defensible. d. statistical analysis involves examination of qualitative, rather than quantitative, data. 57. Systematically moving workers from one job to another is known as: a. job enlargement. b. job enrichment. c. job rotation. d. dejobbing. 58. Which of the following would be LEAST likely used when selecting staff for assignments outside the U. S.? a. an adaptability screening test b. the Overseas Assignment Inventory c. a test of foreign language speaking ability . an occupational preferences test 59. An HR staffing plan would likely include all of the following EXCEPT: a. projected turnover. b. employee skills and quality. c. financial resources available to the HR department. d. an analysis of the causes of absenteeism in the organization. 60. Personnel replacement charts are primarily used for: a. forecasting the supply of internal job candidates. b. forecasting the supply of external job candidates. c. writing job descriptions. d. conducting exit interviews. 61. Which of the following tests would likely be considered the MOST valid in terms of job relatedness? a. mathematics test for factory workers b. a manual dexterity test for insurance sales staff c. a typing test for medical transcriptionists d. a management assessment center for data processors 62. If an employment selection test constitutes a fair sample of the duties of the job, the test has what kind of validity? a. content validity b. criterion validity c. construct validity d. position validity 63. The process of forecasting the supply of internal job candidates would be LEAST likely to use which of the following: a. qualifications inventories. b. personnel replacement charts. c. position replacement cards. d. exit interviews. 64.
A hospital that needs to recruit newly licensed physical therapists would probably be most successful by targeting its recruiting efforts toward: a. fitness centers. b. university physical therapy departments. c. internal job postings. d. local physicians. 65. Which of the following recruiting advertisements would likely be deemed in violation of EEO regulations? a. “experienced housekeeper wanted” b. “nursery school seeks mature child care worker” c. “young man needed for insurance sales position” d. “female model needed for hosiery and lingerie manufacturer” 66. In regard to employee recruiting, the term “head hunter” generally refers to: . candidates who are over-qualified for the job. b. executive recruiters. c. former employees who wish to return to the company. d. entry-level candidates who demand large salaries. 67. Using the Internet in the recruiting process would likely be most useful when the company is attempting to recruit: a. laborers. b. data processors. c. mail clerks. d. bookkeepers. 68. The federal law that would be least likely to affect employment references is: a. The Freedom of Information Act. b. The Fair Credit Reporting Act. c. The Family Education Rights and Privacy Act. d. The Fair Labor Standards Act. 69. The most widely used HR selection tool is: . the interview. b. cognitive testing. c. the assessment center. d. motor skills testing. 70. If a company wishes to measure a job candidate’s stability, introversion, and motivation, it would be most likely to use which of the following selection tests: a. intelligence tests. b. honesty tests. c. personality tests. d. handwriting analysis. 71. Tests that measure traits, temperament, or disposition are examples of: a. manual dexterity tests. b. personality tests. c. intelligence tests. d. work sample tests. 72. Using a structured interviewing technique would likely achieve all of the following EXCEPT: a. ncreased consistency across candidates. b. reduced subjectivity on the part of the interviewer. c. enhanced job relatedness. d. more opportunity to explore areas as they arise during the interview. 73. A stress interview technique would be most appropriate for which of the following jobs? a. an executive chef b. a secretary c. a paralegal d. an air traffic controller 74. A well-designed new employee orientation program is likely to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT: a. fewer mistakes by the new employee. b. an appreciation of the company’s core values. c. an understanding of policies and procedures. d. aster advancement in the organization for the new employee. 75. In order to lower the chances of lawsuits claiming discrimination in hiring, employers should note that: a. selection tests must be related to the job. b. it is illegal to require selection tests for protected classes. c. selection tests need not be valid if they are reliable. d. selection tests need not be job related as long as they are administered to all applicants. 76. Employees who are not citizens of the countries in which they are working are called: a. expatriates. b. home-country nationals. c. third-country nationals. d. naturalized citizens. 77.
HR professionals can best promote transferability of training by: a. using well-prepared speakers for training programs. b. maximizing the similarity between the training situation and the work situation. c. using technology in the delivery of training programs. d. offering incentives to employees who attend training programs. 78. The most appropriate method of assessing the training needs of new employees is: a. task analysis. b. performance analysis. c. cognitive analysis. d. psychological analysis. 79. The process of verifying that there is an employee performance deficiency and determining if training is an appropriate solution is: . task analysis. b. performance analysis. c. behavioral analysis. d. deficiency analysis. 80. Methods of determining employee training needs include all of the following EXCEPT: a. reviewing performance appraisals. b. analyzing customer complaints. c. interviewing employees and supervisors. d. examining compensation records. 81. An example of a specific performance deficiency amenable to employee training is: a. “John has a poor attitude toward his job. ” b. “Mary seems anti-social toward her co-workers in the department. ” c. “Expectations for sales staff are eight new contacts per week, but Jim averages only two. d. “Despite repeated reprimands, Jennifer just isn’t working hard enough at her job. ” 82. In developing employee training programs, HR professionals should first: a. distinguish between “can’t do” and won’t do” in terms of employee performance. b. inventory the organization’s supply of training programs to determine which program to present. c. match the appropriate employee groups with the appropriate training program. d. examine the organization’s compensation structure to determine the cause of the performance problem. 83. Performance task analysis would likely include all of the following EXCEPT: a. uality of the performance. b. conditions under which the task is performed. c. when and how often the task is performed. d. compensation paid for performing the task. 84. The first step in the delivery of on-the-job training is: a. demonstrate the task for the learner. b. prepare the learner for the training. c. ask the learner to perform the task. d. correct the employee as needed during the performance of the task. 85. A step-by-step self-learning method that consists of presenting the information, allowing a response, and providing feedback on the response is: a. computer based (programmed) training. b. n-the-job training. c. apprenticeship training. d. simulated training. 86. The main advantage of computer-based programmed training over other training methods is that: a. programmed training allows trainees to learn much more about the tasks to be performed. b. it is easier to measure performance improvement with programmed training. c. programmed training reduces training time. d. programmed training is the least expensive training method. 87. Training programs for employees preparing for international assignments would be most likely to include: a. task analysis training. b. cultural differences awareness. . manual dexterity enhancement. d. cognitive skills training. 88. The Human Resource department’s contributions to an organizational re-engineering process would likely include all of the following EXCEPT: a. building employee commitment for the process. b. redesigning the organization’s mission and goals. c. redesigning work processes. d. redesigning compensation strategies. 89. The effectiveness of an employee-training program would best be determined by: a. measuring employee performance before and after the training was provided. b. comments from supervisors regarding the content of the training program. . the number of employees who attended the training program. d. determining employee reaction to the training program. 90. The first step in an effective performance appraisal process is to: a. define the job being appraised. b. measure the employee’s performance on job tasks. c. give feedback to the employee about job performance. d. observe the employee’s on the job behaviors. 91. The simplest and most widely used technique for appraising performance is: a. the paired comparison method. b. the graphic trait rating scale. c. management by objectives. d. the forced distribution method. 92.
The most effective way to evaluate performance management programs is to: a. quantify performance expectations, deliver the program, and assess differences in performance before and after the program. b. compare the costs of such programs and select the one that is most cost-effective. c. survey supervisors by using a questionnaire, survey, or other quantitative analysis tool. d. survey customers for their input on employee performance improvement. 93. Organizations can promote employee involvement in the performance appraisal process by using which of the following strategies? a. including peer performance appraisal and self-appraisal . holding organizational social events, such as annual picnics c. basing compensation decisions on performance ratings d. using job enrichment for all employees 94. A major implication of current career development approaches is that: a. companies will need to increase spending on career development programs. b. HR development activities serve not only the company’s needs, but also the needs of individual employees. c. companies should not provide career development programs because such programs increase turnover. d. companies should redesign their compensation strategies to foster career development. 5. Realistic job preview strategies can enhance employee career development and help decrease turnover by: a. informing prospective employees of the organization’s compensation and benefits packages. b. helping prospective employees decide whether the job is a good fit with their personal skills and goals. c. explaining the organization’s mission, vision, and strategic plans. d. explaining the benefits of the organization’s training programs. 96. HR professionals can most effectively identify employee training needs by conducting: a. both task performance and performance analysis. b. ask analysis only. c. performance analysis only. d. neither task analysis nor performance analysis; HR professionals should rely primarily on supervisory recommendations. 97. HR management practices designed to change employee attitudes, values, and beliefs so that employees can improve the organization are collectively known as: a. organizational development interventions. b. employee training programs. c. organizational reward systems. d. management by objectives. 98. The performance appraisal method that places employees into predetermined percentages of performance categories is: . graphic rating scales. b. alternation ranking. c. forced distribution. d. critical incident methods. 99. Which of the following performance appraisal methods is based on the supervisor’s log of positive and negative employee behaviors? a. alternation ranking b. forced distribution c. critical incidents d. behaviorally anchored ranking scales 100. An effective technique to improve deficiencies in employee performance is: a. a performance action plan that shows the employee how to improve, when improvement is expected, and how results will be evaluated. b. demotion confrontation to reinforce the seriousness of the performance deficiency. c. progressive discipline to punish the employee. d. interpersonal sensitivity training. 101. Organizational pre-retirement counseling programs would likely include all of the following EXCEPT: a. explanation of Social Security benefits. b. financial and investment training. c. counseling in the area of leisure activities. d. psychological testing. 102. Measurement of the effectiveness of an organization’s outplacement counseling program would likely include: a. employee performance appraisal records prior to the outplacement counseling. . the numbers or percentages of employees placed in new jobs. c. the number of employees who were provided with outplacement counseling. d. the size of the organizational workforce that did not receive outplacement counseling. 103. Current trends in the training and development of international employees include all of the following except: a. increased use of technology in training and development. b. continuing training during the duration of the international assignment. c. significantly increased compensation for international employees. d. increased focus on cultural awareness programs. 104.
International employees would be more likely than employees working in the U. S. to receive which of the following training programs: a. safety and security training. b. computer skills training. c. training in quantitative methodologies. d. training in organizational intranets. 105. The most significant measure of the effectiveness of an employee training program involves: a. determining if employees liked the program. b. determining if supervisors liked the program. c. determining if performance improvement was a result of the training or some other factor. d. determining the training costs per employee in attendance. 06. A major consideration in the implementation of employee performance management and appraisal programs is: a. legal defensibility. b. the number of employees who will be appraised. c. the size of the company’s HR department. d. the number of supervisors who will do the appraising. 107. The regulation that makes it unlawful for employers to discriminate against any individual because of race with respect to compensation or other terms of employment is the: a. Fair Labor Standards Act. b. the 1964 Civil Rights Act. c. the Davis–Bacon Act. d. the Equal Pay Act. 108.
The law created to protect employees against the failure of their employer’s pension plan is: a. The Equal Pay Act. b. ERISA. c. COBRA. d. The Civil Rights Act of 1964. 109. A basic principle of organizational compensation practices is that compensation should: a. support organizational strategy by rewarding behaviors the organization values. b. be kept lower than industry standards to increase cost savings. c. focus primarily on seniority. d. be kept separate from union contract issues. 110. If an organization’s pay rates are similar with prevailing rates in other organizations, the compensation structure reflects: . internal equity. b. external equity. c. face validity. d. concurrent reliability. 111. In conducting a salary survey, HR professionals would likely use all of the following EXCEPT: a. formal written surveys. b. telephone surveys. c. commercial salary surveys. d. interviews with former employees. 112. A systematic comparison done to determine the worth of one job relative to another in the organization is: a. job analysis. b. job evaluation. c. a salary survey. d. job classification. 113. The simplest method of performing job evaluation is: a. ranking. b. factor comparison. c. the point method. . a histogram. 114. If organizational exit interviews indicate that employee turnover is due to dissatisfaction with compensation, HR professionals would likely: a. increase pay rates immediately. b. conduct a salary survey. c. conduct management leadership training. d. outsource the compensation and benefits function. 115. A collection of jobs grouped together by approximately equal difficulty levels is a: a. pay grade. b. pay for performance system. c. compensation analysis factor. d. responsibility level. 116. A wage rate that is above the rate range for its grade would result in: . overpayment relative to others in the same grade. b. underpayment relative to others in the same grade. c. grounds for termination. d. wage compression. 117. Which of the following is an example of an executive compensation strategy that aims to increase the price of the company’s stock? a. an increase in base pay b. a company car c. stock options d. stock bonuses 118. A major difference between skill-based pay and pay based on job evaluation is that: a. skill-based pay does not consider seniority. b. there are fewer opportunities for advancement with skill-based pay. c. kill-based pay is based on the pay grade for the job. d. skill-based pay tends to be lower than pay based on job evaluation. 119. Broadbanding, as a compensation strategy, is valuable for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. it offers increased flexibility in compensation. b. it supports the “boundaryless organization” concept. c. it reduces compensation costs. d. it supports a flatter organizational hierarchy. 120. An incentive pay plan for factory assembly line workers would be most likely to use which of the following methods? a. Piecework b. Stock options c. Golden parachutes d.
Perquisites 121. Which of the following administrative positions would be considered an “exempt” position under the FLSA? a. entry-level bookkeeper b. word processor c. office manager d. clerk 122. A variable pay plan in which a corporation annually contributes shares of stock which are then distributed to employees when they retire or leave the company is known as a(n): a. profit-sharing plan. b. employee stock ownership plan. c. individual stock option plan. d. flexible benefit plan. 123. All of the following are essential to the implementation of an effective incentive plan EXCEPT: . units of work output must be easily measured. b. employees must be able to exert control over the work output. c. employees must determine the amount of the incentive per unit of work output. d. employees must perceive a clear relationship between effort and reward. 124. A disadvantage of incentive plans such as profit-sharing, gain-sharing, and Scanlon plans is that: a. the link between individual effort and organizational reward is not always clear. b. such plans tend to minimize employee commitment to the organization. c. the plans only benefit executive management. d. ost employees are not eligible to participate until they are ready to retire. 125. A major compensation consideration for expatriate workers that is NOT generally a consideration for U. S. based employees is: a. wage compression. b. geographical pay differentials based on cost of living. c. decreased compensation costs for international employees. d. the use of incentive plans. 126. A “paid time off” policy that gives each employee a total figure for annual time off including vacation, sick leave, and personal days to be used at the employee’s discretion will likely result in: a. sharply increased compensation costs. . increased need for temporary and part-time employees. c. increased costs to administer the policy. d. decreased unscheduled absences. 127. A benefit intended to augment unemployment insurance so that the employee may maintain his or her standard of living is called: a. a Scanlon plan. b. supplemental unemployment benefits. c. workers’ compensation. d. a cost of living allowance. 128. The provisions of the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) stipulate that: a. workers in organizations of 250 or more employees are eligible for the leave. b. employees may take up to four weeks leave in a 12-month period. . the leave may be for employee illness, or the illness of an employee’s spouse or child, but not an employee’s parent. d. the leave need not be paid by the employer. 129. Methods of reducing workers’ compensation costs would include all of the following EXCEPT: a. eliminating accident-causing conditions in the workplace. b. getting employees back on the job as quickly as possible after an injury or illness. c. disciplining employees who file claims for workers’ compensation. d. conducting employee safety programs. 130. With regard to employee health care benefits for workers over age 65: a. mployers do not have to provide benefits to workers over age 65 because such workers are eligible for Medicare. b. employers must provide the same health care benefits to workers over 65 as they provides to younger workers. c. workers over age 65 are not eligible for employer health care benefits. d. employers may include workers over age 65 in the company’s health plan, but the older workers must pay the entire cost of the benefit. 131. Employees who leave an organization are generally eligible to continue their employee health care, at their own expense, for a period of up to 18 months under the provisions of: . COBRA. b. ERISA. c. FMLA. d. FLSA. 132. As the workforce ages, more employees will likely need of which of the following benefits? a. child care services b. long-term care benefits c. mental health benefits d. employer-sponsored cafeterias 133. Employers generally favor defined contribution pension plans over defined benefit pension plans because: a. they are easier to administer. b. they offer retirees a guaranteed fixed sum at retirement. c. the employees’ retirement income benefits are predetermined by the employer. d. defined benefit plans include costs for health insurance benefits. 134.
An employee benefit that provides employees with counseling and/or treatment for problems such as stress or alcoholism is: a. an employee wellness program. b. an employee assistance program. c. a Scanlon plan. d. a defined benefit program. 135. Non-cash incentives provided to a company’s executives are known as: a. perquisites or “perks. ” b. insider trades. c. boardroom bonuses. d. “platinum purses. ” 136. Benefits plans that allow employees to choose from a variety of benefit options are known collectively as: a. employee assistance plans or EAPs. b. flexible benefits plans or cafeteria plans. c. nrestricted benefits plans. d. health care spending accounts. 137. Groups of health care providers that contract with employers and insurance companies to deliver health care services are termed: a. preferred provider organizations. b. health maintenance organizations. c. insurers of last resort. d. fee-for-service providers. 138. The most commonly used approach to formulating an expatriate worker’s pay is to equalize the employee’s purchasing power across countries. This practice is known as: a. a cost-benefit analysis. b. a balance sheet approach. c. an international profit and loss statement. d. pay for performance. 39. Major considerations in the evaluation of expatriate workers’ compensation plans generally includes all of the following EXCEPT : a. evaluating the influence of the costs of living in other countries. b. evaluating the financial incentives needed to attract and keep expatriate workers. c. evaluating the need for repatriation procedures. d. evaluating non-cash compensation items. 140. In considering compensation policies for expatriate workers, HR professionals should note that: a. expatriates are generally willing to take a significant pay cut in exchange for the opportunity to live in another country. b. xpatriate employees are generally paid on a weekly basis. c. living costs can vary widely from one county to another. d. cost-of-living pay increases are rarely offered to expatriate workers. 141. One of the major employer advantages in contracting with health maintenance organizations (HMO’s) to deliver employee health care is: a. employees have greater choice in selecting a physician. b. reduced costs. c. the employer receives copies of all employee medical records. d. premiums remain stable for a five-year period. 142. Appropriate steps employers can take to reduce employee health care costs include all of the following EXCEPT: . increase annual health insurance deductibles. b. increase employee contributions to health care costs. c. offer training programs in health and wellness. d. terminate employees who experience significant illness or injury. 143. A salary plus incentive/commission compensation plan would be most appropriate for which of the following workers? a. a restaurant chef b. an automobile salesperson c. a registered nurse d. an administrative assistant 144. The right to purchase a specific number of company stock shares at a specific period of time for a specific price is known as a(n): a. stock option. b. mega-option grant. . optional incentive. d. employee stock ownership plan. 145. A one-time payment made to employees terminated by their organization is known as: a. unemployment insurance. b. severance pay. c. a commission. d. employee assistance. 146. Employee benefits as a percentage of payroll are currently approximately: a. 10% of payroll. b. 25% of payroll c. 40% of payroll. d. 60% of payroll. 147. Unionization tends to be fostered by all of the following EXCEPT: a. low employee morale. b. employees’ fear of job loss. c. employees’ lack of trust in management. d. employers’ desire to reduce organizational labor costs. 148.
A form of union security in which the company may hire non-union workers, but the workers must join the union after a certain period time (if they do not, the workers can be fired) is: a. a union shop. b. a closed shop. c. an open shop. d. an agency shop. 149. The primary U. S. legislation that affirms the rights of employees to form a union and bargain collectively is the: a. Landrum-Griffin Act. b. Labor-Management Relations Act (Taft-Hartley Act). c. National Labor Relations Act (Wagner Act). d. Unionization Act of 1930. 150. In union organizing, the group of employees the union will represent is known as: a. the bargaining unit. . the agency shop. c. the representation committee. d. the solidarity unit. 151. During union organizing activity, the following would be considered an unfair labor practice on the part of a private employer: a. barring union organizers from soliciting employees during their work time. b. barring union organizers from soliciting employees in a public parking lot across the street from the company property. c. barring employees from soliciting other employees during work time. d. barring union organizers from entering the company’s executive offices. 152. The federal agency responsible for handling complaints of unfair labor ractices in a union environment is: a. the National Labor Relations Board. b. the Office of Federal Contract Compliance. c. the Taft-Hartley Board. d. the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health. 153. An employee dismissal that does not comply with the law or that does not comply with a stated or implied contractual agreement between the company and the employee is called: a. employment-at-will. b. wrongful discharge. c. negligent firing. d. defamation 154. Provisions that make it illegal for unions to require union member ship as a condition of employment are called: a. right-to-work laws. b. the Wagner Act, title VII. . collective bargaining. d. the Walsh-Healy Act. 155. When companies resort to “bumping” and layoff procedures during a business slowdown, the determination as to which employees should be laid off is usually based on: a. seniority. b. committee consensus. c. managerial discretion. d. employee participatory decision-making. 156. Right-to-work provisions: a. apply to all states in the U. S. b. outlaw provisions that make union membership a condition of keeping one’s job. c. are examples of unfair labor practices. d. are prohibited by the Taft-Hartley Act. 157. The president of the U. S. has the right to intervene in: . national emergency strikes. b. wildcat strikes in manufacturing and tourism related industries. c. economic strikes. d. none of the above. The president may not intervene in any strikes. 158. Common reasons for the failure of an international employee assignment include all of the following EXCEPT: a. family’s inability to adjust to the international assignment. b. employee’s inability to adjust to the international assignment. c. inability to adapt to the local culture. d. dissatisfaction with the performance appraisal process. 159. In considering expatriate employees, HR professionals should note that: a. abor relations practices differ from country to country. b. strikes occur much more often in European countries than they do in the U. S. c. grievances occur much more often in European countries than they do in the U. S. d. unions are very rarely found in western Europe. 160. A common repatriation problem for international companies is that: a. repatriation usually precipitates employee grievances. b. there is usually high employee turnover following repatriation. c. repatriated employees usually demand significantly higher salaries. d. repatriated employees generally do not wish to return to the U. S. 161.
An employee’s identification with the company and agreement to the pursue the company’s mission is termed: a. the hierarchy of needs. b. employment-at-will. c. employee commitment. d. employee assistance. 162. HR professionals can make a significant contribution to improved employee relations and a positive organizational culture by: a. serving as a linkage between employees and management during periods of organizational change. b. distributing copies of the Worker Notification and Retraining Adjustment Act so as to improve organizational communication. c. dismissing employee grievances as counterproductive to organizational functioning. . initiating frequent restructuring initiatives. 163. HR efforts to create positive employee relations can be hindered by: a. negative managerial and supervisory philosophies. b. federal and state workplace laws. c. the size of the company. d. location of the company. 164. Activities to encourage employee organizational commitment include all of the following EXCEPT: a. promote fair treatment. b. establish the value that people are important in the organization. c. encourage employees to develop to their full potential. d. abolish union activity. 165. Charges of unfair labor practices are filed with the: . court of appeals in the location in which the company is headquartered. b. National Labor Relations Board. c. local police. d. National Guard. 166. If an employee files an unfair labor practice charge against a company: a. the company can file a grievance against the employee. b. the company may not discriminate against the employee simply because of the filing. c. employers may decertify the union. d. the employee can be demoted, but not fired. 167. Which of the following is FALSE with regard to unions? a. After a bargaining unit is established, employers may refuse to bargain with the union. b.
In the U. S. , union membership has experienced an overall decline since the 1950s. c. Wages of union members are usually higher than those of nonunion members in the same industries. d. Union workers generally enjoy better benefits packages than do non-union workers. 168. Collective bargaining requires that union and management negotiate in all of the following areas EXCEPT: a. wages. b. hours of work. c. conditions of employment. d. stock options offered to management. 169. The most time-consuming strategy in negotiating a union contract is usually: a. the preparation phase prior to the negotiation. b. he examination of the current labor contract. c. the negotiation meeting. d. notifying employees that the contract has been ratified. 170. All of the following are acceptable collective bargaining items EXCEPT: a. wages of hourly workers. b. the number of sick days employees may take in a given year. c. the number of paid holidays offered by the company. d. the qualifications of members of the company’s board of directors. 171. A female manager who requires a male employee to go on a date with her in order for the employee to be considered for a promotion: a. may be engaging in quid pro quo sexual harassment. b. s not engaging in unacceptable behavior, as only male employees can be found guilty of sexual harassment. c. may do so only in a union environment. d. is probably just joking, in an attempt to improve workplace relationships. 172. A “decision-making leave” may be offered to employees as part of: a. the Family and Medical Leave Act. b. the Walsh-Healy Act. c. an HMO health benefits package. d. an employee discipline process. 173. An employee discipline process that emphasizes harsher penalties for repeated infractions is called: a. progressive discipline. b. employment-at-will. c. dismissal and termination. d. escalation of force. 74. “Reasonable accommodation” by employers is specifically required by: a. most progressive discipline policies. b. the Age Discrimination in Employment Act. c. the Americans with Disabilities Act. d. random drug testing policies. 175. Of the following grounds for dismissal, which would likely be most difficult to prove? a. insubordination b. stealing c. chronic absenteeism d. poor quality work 176. A more positive workplace can be created if managers and supervisors communicate to employees exactly what their jobs require in terms of performance. This kind of communication is called: a. employee engagement. b. expectation clarity. . the discipline process. d. an exit survey. 177. A commonly used method of measuring employees’ perceptions of fair treatment is: a. an employee opinion survey. b. an examination of employee dismissal records. c. examining utilization records of employee assistance programs. d. examining absenteeism rates. 178. A major indicator of management commitment to fair treatment in the workplace is: a. the degree to which employees feel they are able to participate in decisions that affect them. b. the frequency of employee social activities in the workplace. c. the size of the workforce. d. the frequency of performance appraisal. 79. Prior to beginning an employee discipline process, HR professionals should encourage managers to: a. give the employee a written warning. b. make sure the evidence supports the charge of wrongdoing. c. give the employee a verbal warning. d. conduct a formal employee performance appraisal. 180. A conflict resolution technique in which a neutral third party attempts to assist the conflicting parties in reaching an agreement is: a. mediation. b. cooperation. c. arbitration. d. dissolution. 181. The conflict resolution technique which guarantees a solution to an impasse by dictating the terms of the settlement is: . mediation. b. arbitration. c. conciliation. d. grievance hearing. 182. An example of management failure to bargain in good faith with a union is: a. bypassing the union representative. b. refusing to allow a closed shop. c. demanding that the two parties discuss severance pay. d. proposing drug testing of employees. 183. The union decertification process is: a. essentially similar to the union certification process in terms of steps in the process. b. similar to the union certification process, except that a higher percentage of votes is needed to decertify the union that was needed to certify the union. c. complex and very expensive process that usually results in failure. d. currently illegal under the Wagner Act. 184. An appropriate action for employers attempting to avoid unionization would be to: a. threaten employees with loss of their jobs if they unionize. b. provide supervisory training regarding unfair labor practices and management effectiveness/leadership training. c. decrease compensation as a punishment for union organizing activity. d. initiate small but strategic layoffs. 185. In general, employees who feel they are treated fairly will: a. be more likely to unionize. b. have lower retention rates. c. be more productive. d. ave higher absence rates. 186. Employees of hostile or abusive supervisors are more likely than other employees to do all of the following EXCEPT: a. report high stress levels. b. quit their jobs. c. report lower satisfaction with life. d. participate in employee training programs. 187. A appropriate technique HR professionals can use to increase employee involvement in workplace improvement initiatives is to: a. foster an atmosphere of open communications and invite employee input. b. create employee discipline guidelines for those who do not participate. c. enlarge the jobs of those who refuse to participate in involvement activities. d. nvolve only managers and supervisors in workplace improvement initiatives. 188. Managers who need to disseminate specific information quickly throughout the organization should use which of the following communication approaches? a. top-down communication b. bottom-up communication c. quality circles d. employee participatory management 189. An abnormal health condition caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment is a(n): a. occupational illness. b. repetitive stress injury. c. health citation. d. malingering. 190. The federal law that most specifically and comprehensively addresses workplace health and safety is: . OSHA. b. ADA. c. COBRA. d. ERISA. 191. If an employee is injured at work, the most appropriate initial action would be to: a. provide first aid followed by medical attention. b. notify the company’s legal defense team. c. notify OSHA. d. consult the employee’s benefits package to determine health coverage. 192. Identification of employee alcohol abuse: a. is often difficult, as symptoms such as tardiness can occur with other kinds of behavior problems as well as alcohol abuse. b. should be done routinely with blood alcohol screenings. c. should be grounds for immediate dismissal. d. hould trigger a formal disciplinary proceeding. 193. The federal legislation that pertains to workers with chronic illness such as asthma or diabetes is: a. the Americans with Disabilities Act. b. the Age Discrimination in Employment Act. c. Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act. d. the Equal Pay Act. 194. Positive steps employers can take to reduce workplace violence include all of the following EXCEPT: a. providing workplace safety and security training. b. creating an organizational culture that emphasizes mutual respect. c. refusing to hire employees who have ever been convicted of any type of violent act. . providing security staff to monitor the workplace. 195. If an OSHA inspector shows up at the workplace, the first step an HR professional should take is: a. check and verify the inspector’s credentials. b. close the workplace and send the employees home. c. deny any violation noted by the inspector. d. secure all health and safety related company records in a locked location. 196. A major concern in the area of occupational injury is: a. employee nutrition. b. repetitive stress injuries due to cumulative trauma. c. anorexia among female employees. d. skin diseases due to handling computer equipment. 197.
An organization that employs many workers who smoke cigarettes should note all of the following EXCEPT: a. smokers have higher absenteeism rates that nonsmokers. b. organizations that have significant numbers of smokers generally pay higher health and fire insurance premiums. c. instituting a ban on hiring smokers is generally illegal under federal law. d. smokers have greater risks for occupational accidents than nonsmokers. 198. A special health and safety concern for expatriate employees, more so than those in the U. S. , is: a. possible security threats in foreign countries. b. asbestos exposure. c. cigarette smoking. d. alcohol abuse. 99. HR professionals who work in fast paced organizations should to all of the following EXCEPT: a. monitor employees for signs of stress and burnout. b. provide training programs in burnout prevention. c. try to give employees more control over their jobs. d. report employees who seek help with stress-related problems to their supervisors. 200. Employers who reward employees for increasing the number of days without a workplace injury: a. will likely have a safer workplace. b. may not do so without union approval if the company is unionized. c. are governed by the provisions of OSHA. d. must communicate reward policies in writing.